An other thing that’s interesting is verse 6. I’d have to check Skousen, which I don’t have access to right now, to know if that verse got modified. But if it wasn’t then it’s fascinating that it presents the “most high God” and then Nephi is blessed “because thou believes in the Son of the most high God; therefore thou shalt behold the things which thou has desired.” It suggests that knowing about the Son is something key here.

I’m not sure the “wherefore” in this verse has been discussed before. It seems to read as if it should be “therefore.” “Therefore” refers to what came before and is like “thus” while “wherefore” is more like the word “why.” I confess other than just getting its meaning wrong I’m not sure how to take it. The phrase after the semicolon would seem to be a question if the wherefore is right. Any English majors up on archaic English able to take this one up? (This use is misunderstood in Shakespeare as well – “Wherefore art thou Romeo?” is the classic example for “wherefore.” It’s “why are you Romeo?” not “where are you Romeo?”

The other thing that’s interesting to me is that the climax of chapter 11 is verse 33. Yet nothing really contextualizes it. Exactly how Jesus is slain for sins isn’t really explained at all. That’s at least as mysterious as Lehi’s imagery Nephi is trying to understand. Is it being presented as a substitutionary atonement? It doesn’t come off that way. I’m almost half tempted to read “slain for the sins of the world” as “slain for of the sins that the world see as sin.” That is less tied to traditional Christian atonement passages but makes more sense with verse 32 where the world judges him. His crucifixion is due to the world judging him and the atonement/condescension is much more the fact Jesus came. This also makes the inversion in the next chapter where the Twelve Judge the world more interesting.